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APPG Question Paper with Answers and Explanation. 1. In Dysphonia Plica APPG COUNSELLING DETAILS. Dr. NTR. Edition Key questions every governing board should ask meeting of the APPG and published at the APPG's summer reception. Since then they . APPG Women in Parliament Inquiry Improving Parliament .. Women and Equalities Oral Parliamentary questions already take place in the [Online] Available from: vinttililmelu.ga [Accessed June ].
The passage taken by the beam of light is viewed from an angle. In the normal eye, a focal reflection is seen where the light strikes the cornea. The beam is then invisible as it traverses the almost protein- and cell-free aqueous humor in the anterior chamber. The light beam is visible again as a focal reflection on the anterior lens capsule and then as a diffuse beam through the body of the normal lens due to presence of lens proteins.
If uveitis has allowed leakage of serum proteins into the anterior chamber then these will cause a scattering of the light as it passes through the aqueous. Aqueous flare is therefore detected when a beam of light joining the focal reflections on the corneal surface and the anterior lens capsule is visible traversing the anterior chamber. A slit lamp provides ideal conditions for detecting flare, however the beam produced by the smallest circular aperture on the direct ophthalmoscope held as closely as possible to the cornea in a completely darkened room and viewed transversely will also provide excellent results.
The slit beam on the direct ophthalmoscope is not as intense and does not provide as many "edges" of light where flare can be appreciated most easily. Assessment of flare may be easier after complete pupil dilation due to the apparent dark space created by the pupil. Combined assessment of IOP and aqueous flare should be performed whenever glaucoma or uveitis is suspected because of the frequency with which these conditions co-exist.
Excimer B. Argon C. Diode D. Krypton Ans A LASIK is a surgical procedure which combines a micro-keratome an automated knife for shaving the cornea and an Excimer Laser an ultraviolet light beam to reshape the cornea. Cobblelstone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva is seen in A. Trachoma B. Ophthalmia nodosa D. Long term use of miotics Ans b Allergic conjunctivitis is suggested by bilateral itchy eyes, a history of atopy, and a cobblestone appearance of the upper palpebral conjunctiva.
Signs of VKC can be described in three clinical forms. Palpebral form- Usually upper tarsal conjunctiva of both the eyes is involved. Typical lesion is characterized by the presence of hard, flat-topped papillae arranged in cobblestone or pavement stone fashion. In severe cases papillae undergo hypertrophy to produce cauliflower-like excrescences of 'giant papillae'.
Bulbar form- It is characterised by dusky red triangular congestion of bulbar conjunctiva in palpebral area, gelatinous thickened accumulation of tissue around limbus and presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus Tranta's spots.
Mixed form- Shows the features of both palpebral and bulbar types Subconjunctival haemorrhage freluently is seen in children with A. Whooping cough B. Measles C. Influenza D. Chicken pox Ans A Causes of Subconjunctival haemorrhage Eye trauma Congenital or acquired coagulation disorder Diving accidents - Mask squeeze volume inside in mask creates increased pressure with increased depth Head injury Whooping cough or other extreme sneezing or coughing   Severe hypertension LASIK Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis caused by Enterovirus 70 or Coxsackie A virus Leptospirosis Increased venous pressure e.
Acute hydrops is seen in A. Keratoglobus B. Buphthalmos C. Keratoconus D. It is characterized by significant corneal edema resulting from a spontaneous rupture in Descemet's membrane. Clinical findings include dense stromal and epithelial edema with corneal protrusion, possible conjunctival hyperemia and irregular epithelium secondary to microcystic edema The location and area of the involved cornea is variable Ciliary staphyloma is due to A.
It is diagnosed by ophthalmoscopy, which shows an area of retinal excavation in the region of the staphyloma. Azithromycin B. Ivermectin C. Rifampicin D. Erythromycin Ans C Topical therapy regimes. It is best for individual cases. It consists of 1 percent tetracycline or 1 percent erythromycin eye ointment 4 times a day for 6 weeks or 20 percent sulfacetamide eye drops three times a day along with 1 percent tetracycline eye ointment at bed time for 6 weeks. The continuous treatment for active trachoma should be followed by an intermittent treatment especially in endemic or hyperendemic area.
Systemic therapy regimes. Tetracycline or erythromycin mg orally, four times a day for weeks or doxycycline mg orally twice daily for weeks or single dose of 1 gm azithromycin has also been reported to be equally effective in treating trachoma. Combined topical and systemic therapy regime.
It is preferred when the ocular infection is severe TI or when there is associated genital infection. It includes: i 1 per cent tetracycline or erythromycin eye ointment 4 times a day for 6 weeks; and ii tetracycline or erythromycin mg orally 4 times a day for 2 weeks.
Ivermectin Inhibits Growth of Chlamydia trachomatis Angular conjunctivitis is typically due to "Moraxella lacunata" which is a A. Gram negative diplococci B. Gram positive diplococci C. Gram negative diplobacilli D. Gram positive diplobacilli Ans C Morax-Axenfeld diplobacillus or Moraxella lacunata is a rod-shaped, Gram negative, non motile bacteria, generally present as diploid pairs. They cause one of the commonest forms of catarrhal conjunctiviti Hard lenses B. Gas permeable lenses C.
Soft lenses D. None of the above Ans C More common monomers in contact lens materials include: Methylmethacrylate MMA , which contributes hardness and strength l Silicone SI , which increases flexibility and gas permeability through the material's silicon-oxygen l Fluorine FL , lbonds but has the disadvantage of poor wettability which also adds a smaller degree of gas permeability and improves wettability and deposit resistance in silicone-containing lenses Hydroxyethyl-methacrylate HEMA , the basic water-absorbing monomer of most soft lenses l Methacrylic acid MAA and n vinyl pyrolidone NVP mono-mers, both of which absorb high amounts l of water and are usually adjuncts to HEMA to increase lens water content Ethylene glycol dimethacrylate EGDMA , a cross-linking agent that l adds dimensional stability and stiffness but reduces water content Hydroxyethylmethacrylate or HEMA is the monomer that is used to make the polymer polyhydroxyethylmethacrylate.
Because of this property, it was one of the first materials to be successfully used in the manufacture of flexible contact lenses 20 By using which one of the instruments corneal thickness can be best measured? Optometer B. Ophthalmometer C. Ultrasonic Pachymeter D. Tensiometer Ans c A pachymeter is a medical device used to measure the thickness of the eye's cornea.
It is used to perform corneal pachymetry prior to LASIK surgery, for Keratoconus screening, LRI surgery  and is useful in screening for patients suspected of developing glaucoma among other uses. Modern devices use ultrasound technology, while earlier models were based on optical principles. The ultrasonic Pachymeters traditionally have been devices that provide the thickness of the human cornea in the form of a number in micrometres that is displayed to the user.
The newer generation of ultrasonic pachymeters. Pachymetry using the corneal waveform allows the user to more accurately measure the corneal thickness, have to ability to check the reliability of the measurements that were obtained, have the ability to superimpose corneal waveform to monitor the change of patients cornea over time, and ability to measure structures within the cornea such as micro bubbles created in the cornea during femto-second laser flap cu The engaging diameter in 'brow' presentation is A.
During normal involution, uterus becomes a pelvic organ by the end of A. Which of the following is NOT a feature of severe pre-eclampsia? Visual disturbances C. Oliguria D. Amnion nodosum B.
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Placental insufficiency C. Fetal renal agenesis D. Rhesus isoimmunization Ans D Amnion nodosum are nodules on the fetal surface of the amnion, and is frequently present in oligohydramnios It is typically caused by fetal urinary tract abnormalities such as unilateral renal agenesis Potter's syndrome , fetal polycystic kidneys, or genitourinary obstruction.
Uteroplacental insufficiency is another common cause. Most of these abnormalities can also be detected by obstetric ultrasound. It may also occur simply due to dehydration of the mother, maternal use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or without a determinable cause idiopathic. The diagnostic approach to polyhydramnios consists of 1 physical examination of the mother with an investigation for diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, and Rh isoimmunization; 2 sonographic confirmation of polyhydramnios and assessment of the fetus; 3 fetal karyotyping; and 4 maternal serologic testing for syphilis.
For ultrasound diagnosis of chronic polyhydramnios, the amniotic fluid index should be more than A. Which one defines 'precipitate labour'? All stages of labour completed within 6 hours Ans C The ideal management is A.
Treatment must begin promptly in the community. Couvelaire uterus is a complication of A. Rupture uterus B. Torsion of gravid uterus C. Red degeneration of fibroid D. Severe form of concealed accidental haemorrhage Ans D Couvelaire uterus also known as uteroplacental apoplexy  is a life threatening condition in which loosening of the placenta abruptio placentae causes bleeding that penetrates into the uterine myometrium forcing its way into the peritoneal cavity.
This may occur after abruptio placentae. The hemorrhage that gets into the decidua basalis ultimately splits the decidua, and the haematoma may remain within the decidua or may extravasate into the myometrium the muscular wall of the uterus.
The myometrium becomes weakened and may rupture due to the increase in intrauterine pressure associated with uterine contractions. This may lead to a lifethreatening obstetrical emergency Obstetric conjugate is the distance between A.
It is the shortest antero-posterior diameter. From the tip of sacral promontory to the lower border of symphysis pubis. It has not a true obstetric importance. In pregnancy which one of the following heart diseases is associated with the least maternal mortality? Aortic stenosis B. Marian syndrome C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Patent ductus arteriosus Ans D Patent ductus arteriosus Although predominantly found in females, patent ductus arteriosus PDA is of less practical importance as a complication of pregnancy since the clinical diagnosis is simple and because operative or catheter closure is routine and curative in childhood.
An asymptomatic young woman with a small or moderate-sized ductus and normal pulmonary arterial pressure can anticipate an uncomplicated pregnancy, apart from the risk of infective endarteritis during delivery Eisenmenger syndrome : Reported risk of maternal mortality in this disorder has ranged from 30 to 50 percen The risk of rupture of lower segment caesarean section scar during labour is A.
About 1 in 0. Because of this, you will be offered continuous monitoring of your baby's heart beat during your labour if you decide on a VBAC. Studies have shown that the most common sign that a caesarean scar may be separating is a sustained drop in the baby's heart rate. Having continuous monitoring will reduce the risk of an adverse outcome to about 1 in 3, 0.
This compares favourably to the over all risk of stillbirth for any pregnancy of 1 in 2, Which drug is contraindicated in Malaria with pregnancy?
Quinine B. Mefloquine C. Chloroquine D. Primaquine Ans D Which one of the following is decreased during normal pregnancy? Glomerular filtration rate B. Serum creatinine C. Tidal volume D. Assessment of flare may be easier after complete pupil dilation due to the apparent dark space created by the pupil. Combined assessment of IOP and aqueous flare should be performed whenever glaucoma or uveitis is suspected because of the frequency with which these conditions co-exist.
Excimer B. Argon C. Diode D. Krypton Ans A LASIK is a surgical procedure which combines a micro-keratome an automated knife for shaving the cornea and an Excimer Laser an ultraviolet light beam to reshape the cornea. Cobblelstone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva is seen in A. Trachoma B. Spring Catarrh file: Influenza D. Palpebral form.
Mixed form. Ciliary staphyloma is due to A. Its common causes are thinning of sclera following perforating injury. Usually upper tarsal conjunctiva of both the eyes is involved. Keratoglobus B. Measles C. Keratoconus D. Long term use of miotics Ans b Allergic conjunctivitis is suggested by bilateral itchy eyes. Whooping cough B. Buphthalmos C. Shows the features of both palpebral and bulbar types Bulbar form.
Scleritis B.. Corneal hydrops is an uncommon complication seen in patients with keratoconus.
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Ophthalmia nodosa D. In severe cases papillae undergo hypertrophy to produce cauliflower-like excrescences of 'giant papillae'. It is characterized by significant corneal edema resulting from a spontaneous rupture in Descemet's membrane.
It is characterised by dusky red triangular congestion of bulbar conjunctiva in palpebral area. Clinical findings include dense stromal and epithelial edema with corneal protrusion. Subconjunctival haemorrhage freluently is seen in children with A. Acute hydrops is seen in A.
Typical lesion is characterized by the presence of hard. It is preferred when the ocular infection is severe TI or when there is associated genital infection. Gram negative diplococci B.
Soft lenses D. It is diagnosed by ophthalmoscopy. Gram positive diplococci C. The polymer is hydrophobic. If you have to treat a patient with active trachoma all of the following drugs will be effective against Chlamydia.
Gas permeable lenses C. It consists of 1 percent tetracycline or 1 percent erythromycin eye ointment 4 times a day for 6 weeks or 20 percent sulfacetamide eye drops three times a day along with 1 percent tetracycline eye ointment at bed time for 6 weeks. It includes: They cause one of the commonest forms of catarrhal conjunctiviti Rifampicin D.
Azithromycin B. Hard lenses B. The continuous treatment for active trachoma should be followed by an intermittent treatment especially in endemic or hyperendemic area. Gram negative diplobacilli D. Ivermectin C. Tetracycline or erythromycin mg orally. Gram negative. Angular conjunctivitis is typically due to "Moraxella lacunata" which is a A. None of the above Ans C More common monomers in contact lens materials include: Methylmethacrylate MMA.
Optometer B. The engaging diameter in 'brow' presentation is A. Ophthalmometer C. Tensiometer Ans c A pachymeter is a medical device used to measure the thickness of the eye's cornea. LRI surgery  and is useful in screening for patients suspected of developing glaucoma among other uses. The ultrasonic Pachymeters traditionally have been devices that provide the thickness of the human cornea in the form of a number in micrometres that is displayed to the user.
For the Rhesus positive new born of a Rhesus negative mother. Depending on the physical and chemical structure of the polymer. Modern devices use ultrasound technology. Pachymetry using the corneal waveform allows the user to more accurately measure the corneal thickness. Because of this property. The newer generation of ultrasonic pachymeters. During normal involution. Ultrasonic Pachymeter D. APPG Question Paper with Answers and Explanation the polymer is subjected to water it will swell due to the molecule's hydrophilic pendant group.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of severe pre-eclampsia? Rhesus isoimmunization Ans D Amnion nodosum are nodules on the fetal surface of the amnion. For ultrasound diagnosis of chronic polyhydramnios. Visual disturbances C. The diagnostic approach to polyhydramnios consists of 1 physical examination of the mother with an investigation for diabetes mellitus. Convulsions Ans D one of the following findings is also necessary for a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia: Oliguria D.
Placental insufficiency C. It may also occur simply due to dehydration of the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is another common cause. Most of these abnormalities can also be detected by obstetric ultrasound.
Amnion nodosum B. Fetal renal agenesis D. The diagnostic approach to polyhydramnios consists of 1 physical examination of file: This may occur after abruptio placentae.
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The hemorrhage that gets into the decidua basalis ultimately splits the decidua. Severe form of concealed accidental haemorrhage Ans D Couvelaire uterus also known as uteroplacental apoplexy  is a life threatening condition in which loosening of the placenta abruptio placentae causes bleeding that penetrates into the uterine myometrium forcing its way into the peritoneal cavity.
Treatment must begin promptly in the community. Rupture uterus B. Which one defines 'precipitate labour'? Obstetric conjugate is the distance between A. Torsion of gravid uterus C. This may lead to a lifethreatening obstetrical emergency The ideal management is A. In the presence of known haemoglobinopathy. Red degeneration of fibroid D. Couvelaire uterus is a complication of A. All stages of labour completed within 6 hours Ans C The myometrium becomes weakened and may rupture due to the increase in intrauterine pressure associated with uterine contractions.
This compares favourably to the over all risk of stillbirth for any pregnancy of 1 in 2. It is the shortest antero-posterior diameter. Glomerular filtration rate B. About 1 in 0. Reported risk of maternal mortality in this disorder has ranged from 30 to 50 percen Patent ductus arteriosus Ans D Patent ductus arteriosus — Although predominantly found in females.
Marian syndrome C. In pregnancy which one of the following heart diseases is associated with the least maternal mortality?
Pulmonary hypertension D. Studies have shown that the most common sign that a caesarean scar may be separating is a sustained drop in the baby's heart rate. Chloroquine D. Tidal volume D. Aortic stenosis B. From the tip of sacral promontory to the lower border of symphysis pubis. Serum creatinine C. Mefloquine C. Which drug is contraindicated in Malaria with pregnancy? Having continuous monitoring will reduce the risk of an adverse outcome to about 1 in 3.
Quinine B. Because of this. The risk of rupture of lower segment caesarean section scar during labour is A. It has not a true obstetric importance. Which one of the following is decreased during normal pregnancy?
An asymptomatic young woman with a small or moderate-sized ductus and normal pulmonary arterial pressure can anticipate an uncomplicated pregnancy. Primaquine Ans D Plasma fibrinogen Ans B the physiologic increase in GFR during pregnancy normally results in a decrease in concentration of serum creatinine.
Which placenta praevia is called dangerous placenta praevia? Microscopic pathological features determine whether a surface epithelial-stromal tumor is benign. The acidic environment is produced by the Doderlein's bacilli and helps protect the vagina from the invading vaginal infections.
These cells secrete alpha-fetoprotein AFP. Endodermal sinus tumour D. Anaerobic streptococci C. Type 3 C. This group consists of serous. Combined with alphafetoprotein. Human chorionic gonadotropin can be used as a tumor marker. Doderlein's bacilli Ans D Oral contraceptives. Diphtheroids D. Brenner tumour of ovary is A.
The acidity of vagina is due to A. Complete mole B. Partial mole C. Type 4 B. This acidic environment is produced by the Doderlein's bacilli which is a normal flora found in the vagina it can be destroyed by broadspectrum antibiotics kills pretty much all bacteria. Borderline tumors are of uncertain malignant potential.
Type 2 posterior D. For this reason a positive result in males can be a test for testicular cancer. Fixed retroverted uterus B. It assists in forming the azygos arteries of the vagina. Internal pudendal D. Endometriosis of rectovaginal septum Ans C In males. This anastomosis is mainly responsible for the vaginal cycle that is normally in synchrony with ovarian cycle.
These arteries form anterior and posterior azygos arteries to supply the vaginal wall The uterine artery supplies branches to the cervix uteri and others which descend on the vagina.
Prolapsed ovaries in pouch of Douglas C. The middle rectal artery usually arises with the inferior vesical artery. Inferior vesical C. Vaginal branch of uterine artery B. But a blockage of the anastomotic channel could lead to abnormal vaginal cyclicity. Mullerian agenesis D. Senile atrophy of vagina due to menopause D. Well developed breasts B.
Absence of vagina C. It is distributed to the rectum. The following artery does not contribute to form the azygous arteries of vagina. Inguinal testis Ans D file: Lymphatics from Glans of clitoris drain directly into A. In Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome the following features are present.
The vaginal artery a. The branches of the azygos vessels also anastomose with the perineal branches from the internal pudendal artery in the perineum This is the defining feature of Kallmann syndrome.
Anosmia C. Colour blindness D. Le Fort's repair D. In a 24 year old nulliparous woman with third degree utero vaginal prolapse. Shirodkar's sling operation C. Bilateral absence of vas deference B.
Extended Manchester operation Ans b Extended Manchester operation: However if a boy or girl has not started puberty by either 14 girls or 15 boys and they have one of the non-reproductive features then a referral to reproductive endocrinologist might be advisable.
Purandare's cervico pexy B. Can be used in diabetes mellitus C. The lifespan of Copper T — A is A. Break through bleeding is common Ans a file: Elevated luteinizing hormone B. SHBG is reduced in insulin resistance and actually a very good marker for insulin resistance.
Many women with polycystic ovarian syndrome have a high-normal or even a normal total testosterone but have a low SHBG because they have insulin resistance. Yuzpe method D. It loads in seconds and can be used as emergency contraception for up to 5 days after unprotected sex. Hormone releasing intrauterine device Mirena releases how many microgram of levonorgestrel per day? Raised serum hormone binding globulin D. Premarin C. After 72 hours of unprotected coitus.
No adverse effect on lactation D. Levonorgestrel B. Its amount can vary widely in patients. Elevated androstenedione C. Mainly cause anovulation B. Copper T Ans d Copper upto 5 days Which one of the following regarding "Progestin-only" contraceptive pills is NOT correct? LH and FSH that occurs between birth and six months of age. Glucose B. The progestin-only pill is recommended over regular birth control pills for women who are breastfeeding because the mini-pill does not affect milk production estrogen reduces the amount of breast milk.
RNA contains ribose in deoxyribose there is no hydroxyl group attached to the pentose ring in the 2' position. Main function involves protein biosynthesis D. It should not be worn for more than 30 hours in a row One of the following has energy-rich bonds A. Improper use. It must be left in place for at least six hours after intercourse. Women who use contraceptive sponges have an increased risk of yeast infection and urinary tract infection.
Should not be removed for 6 hours after intercourse C. Like combined pills. There are fewer serious complications than on COCP The mechanism of action of progestogen-only contraceptives depends on the progestogen activity and dose.
The same cervical mucus changes occur as with very-low-dose and intermediate-dose progestogens. Pentose sugar is ribose C. Both have adenine. RNA is a single-stranded molecule in many of its biological roles and has a much shorter chain of nucleotides. The same cervical mucus changes occur as with very-low-dose progestogens. Immobilizes sperms B.
The sponge can be inserted up to 24 hours before intercourse. Long chain fatty acids file: With the decreased clotting risk. RNA can. PGE2 B. Buspirone B. Cisapride C. Used in insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus Type-1 C. Biotin B. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Sulfonylureas? Gamma globulins D. Long term use down regulates sulfonylurea receptors Ans B file: Rizatriptan Ans A Buspirone functions as a serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist It is this action that is thought to mediate its anxiolytic and antidepressant effects.
Coenzyme A contains the Vitamin A. Pyridoxine D. Niacin C. Methionine C. Blood levels of which of the following amino acids serve as an index of the increased risk of cardiovascular disease? Renzapride D. Causes insulin secretion D. Pantothenic acid Pantothenic acid is found throughout living cells in the form of coenzyme A CoA Which of the following 5-HT agonists is anti anxiety drug?
Homoserine D. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase 1 preventing the formation of prostaglandin H2. Profuse watery diarrhoea in Cholera is due to following action of its toxin A. Homocysteine Ans D TXA2 D.
Anti-platelet effect of Aspirin is due to inhibition of synthesis of A. Orally effective B. Cysteine B. Phosphorylation of inhibitory G protein Gi B.
PGI2 C. Which of the following effects is NOT produced by Cholinomimetics? Schwann cells B. Adrenal cortex D. A novel nicotinic agonist approved recently for use in smoking cessation is A. Meckel's cartilage. Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist. Miosis B. Branches leaving the lateral border of psoas: It supplies the skin of lower part of anterior abdominal wall.
The small motor branches of the plexus are distributed directly to the psoas major muscle. It passes through the inguinal canal to supply the skin of groin file: Sensory neurons and glia of the dorsal root ganglia.
Rohon-Beard cells. Schwann cells of all peripheral nerves As a partial agonist it both reduces cravings for and decreases the pleasurable effects of cigarettes and other tobacco products.
Through these mechanisms it can assist some patients to quit smoking. In this respect it is similar to cytisine and different from the nicotinic antagonist. Urinary retention D. Dorsal root ganglion C. Branches of lumbar plexus which emerge from anterior surface of psoas major muscle is A.
Spasm of accommodation Ans C The large motor branches leave the muscle along its lateral and medial borders and along the anterior surface.
Bronchospasm C. In the abdomen. It separates the scala tympani of the cochlea from the middle ear. It crosses the iliac fossa in front of the iliacus muscle and enters the lateral aspect of thigh behind the lateral end of inguinal ligament. Rapid breathing Ans C file: Oblique popliteal ligament D. It enters the thigh lateral to the femoral sheath and supplies various muscles.
Anterior cruciate ligament B. The former supplies the cremaster muscle and the latter supplies a small area of skin of thigh. Inverted Y-shaped ligament of Bigelow C.
Bradycardia B. Portal vein formation lies A. It is closed off from the middle ear by the round window membrane. With a tensile strength exceeding kg lbs. The knee joint is supported by all the following ligaments.
It supplies the skin over the lateral surface of thigh. Round window fenestra cochlea of middle ear is closed by A. The portal vein is formed posterior to the neck of the pancreas by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. The secondary tympanic membrane or round window membrane covers the round window. Hypotension C. It is also referred to as the Y-ligament see below or the ligament of Bigelow.
It takes part in the formation of sacral plexus. Fibular collateral ligament Ans B The iliofemoral ligament is a ligament of the hip joint which extends from the ilium to the femur in front of the joint. It emerges from the medial border of the psoas at the pelvic brim.
Hypertension D. It allows fluid in the cochlea to move. This ensures that hair cells of the basilar membrane will be stimulated and that audition will occur.
Branches leaving the anterior surface of psoas: Genitofemoral nerve: After emerging from the anterior surface of the muscle. It is the largest branch of lumbar plexus. Branches leaving the medial border of psoas: It crosses the pelvic brim in front of the sacroiliac joint and then leaves the pelvis by passing into the thigh through the obturator foramen.
It vibrates with opposite phase to vibrations entering the cochlea through the oval window as the fluid in the cochlea is displaced when pressed by the stapes at the oval window. The stimulation of the J-receptors causes a reflex increase in breathing rate. Its blood level is markedly decreased in anemia. It 'is a glycoprotein with a molecular weight of about It is highly debated if the choroid plexus can be included as a CVO. It is a cytokine protein signaling molecule for erythrocyte red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow.
S Paintal Locus ceruleus Ans D Circumventricular organs CVOs are structures in the brain that are characterized by their extensive vasculature and lack of a normal blood brain barrier BBB. They have the ability to sense plasma molecules and then pass that information into other regions of the brain. Its function is to stimulate red cell production.
Through this. All of the circumventricular organs. Area postrema C. They are present in the alveolar interstitium and are innervated by fibers of the vagus nerve. The sensory organs include the area postrema AP. OVLT D. It has a high concentration of fenestrated capillaries.
Ans D EPO. All are TRUE regarding erythropoietin. They may be also stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung as well as intravenous or intracardiac administration of chemicals. The structures.
The physiologic role of this reflex is uncertain. The locus coeruleus and the areas of the body affected by the norepinephrine it produces are described collectively as the locus coeruleusnoradrenergic system or LC-NA system. Human EPO has a molecular weight of The vagal afferents are activated during the gastric phase of digestion when the corpus and fundus of the stomach are distended secondary to the entry of a food bolus.
D2O for more than 40 years. The completion of the reflex circuit by vagus efferents leads to the stimulation of postganglionic muscarinic nerves. CCK D. If vagal innervation is interrupted then intra-gastric pressure increases.
Panoramic view of the mandibular of a patient with history of trauma shows 2 fractures lines at the angle of the mandible. It is most probably due to? Following should be done? A Person suffered a dislocated fracture in the Premolar region. After 4 yrs, he develops pain in this area which on palpation reveals a soft modular swelling with excrutiating pain. It is? In a 2 to 3yr old child, a bluish dome shaped swelling on the inner side of the lip is most probably?
A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of maxillary lateral incisor is most likely to be? The component of a prosthesis which opposes the action of the retentive component is called? A 30 year old patient underwent resection of mandible for the treatment of ameloblastoma.
The best graft is? A radiolucent root canal suddenly disappears at the mid root portion, the most probable diagnosis is? The most common sequale of a tooth that is stabilized after a fracture in the apical third of the root is? General growth of the body, mental retardation and eruption of the teeth is retarded bu defiency of? A normal tooth after using it as an abutment in a fixed partial denture becomes symptomatic, the tentative diagnosis is?
The castability of chromium-cobalt base metal alloys when compared to gold based noble metal alloys is? I am Varun, a Dentist from Hyderabad, India trying my bit to help everyone understand Dental problems and treatments and to make Dental Education simplified for Dental Students and Dental fraternity.
If you have any doubts feel free to contact me or comment in the post, thanks for visiting. Your email address will not be published. Notify me of follow-up comments by email. Notify me of new posts by email. Secretin is secreted by? Duodenum Pancreas Liver Stomach Ans: Root completion after eruption of the tooth occurs? At the time of eruption In 3 to 4 months In 2 to 3 years In 5 to 6 years Ans: In 60yr old adult, which of the following diseases causes expansile maxillary lesions?
Immature bony trabeculae are found in? Treatment of Submandibular salivary duct calcification includes? Longitudnal incision and suturing the duct Longitudnal incision and suturing the wound leaving the duct open Transverse incision and suturing the duct Transverse incision and suturing the wound leaving the duct open Ans: Aneurasymal bone cyst Idiopathic bone cavity Hemorrhagic bone cyst Ameloblastoma Ans: Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and periapical granuloma is?
Radiographically Histologically Clinically All of the above Ans: Increase in the incidence of dental caries occurs due to? Xerostomia Sialorrhea Leukoplakia Periodontitis Ans: Which of the following drug induces Parkinsonism?
Chlorpheiramine Chlorpromazine Chloroquine Chlorhexidine Ans: All of the following drugs are used in Tuberculosis, except? Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Clofazimine Ethambutol Ans: Width of attached gingiva is thinnest at? The first clinical sign in gingivitis is?
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Change in the color of gingiva Change in the contour Bleeding on probing Change in texture Ans: The first fibers to be destroyed in periodontitis are? Free gingival Oblique Horizontal Transeptal Ans: The index in which the tooth is divided into 9 segments is? PMA index assesses? Gingival disease Periodontal disease Dental caries Root caries Ans: Environmental factor in causation of dental caries is?
Pellicle consists of? Salivary glycoproteins attached to the tooth surface Contains debris and microorganisms Contains debris, microorganisms and desquamated cells All of the above Ans: Syphilis Tuberculosis Histoplasmosis Actinomycosis Ans: Oblique fracture Artifact Double fracture None of the above Ans: Pulpectomy Clean the area, isolate and restore it normally after capping the pulp Clean the area, isolate, immediate capping of pulp and measurement for a complete crown Clean and check for vitality before doing any treatment Ans: Apexogenesis is?
The union of cementum to alveolar bone is called as? Ankylosis Gomphosis Hypercementosis Concrescence Ans: Neurofibroma Traumatic neuroma Hemangioma None of the above Ans: Hematoma Mucocele Hemangioma None of the above Ans: A flat circumscribed pigmented lesion of the skin is? Papule Macule Nodule Bullae Ans: Amalgam is most resistant to which type of stress?Plasma fibrinogen Ans B the physiologic increase in GFR during pregnancy normally results in a decrease in concentration of serum creatinine.
Popiliteal artery C.
Prolapsed ovaries in pouch of Douglas C. Should bleeding though continue. Spasm of accommodation Ans C Some do not consider it a true obligate microaerophile. He also asks the leader of the house to ensure ministers from across government are present at the Acquired Brain Injury Debate on 18th June Osteosarcoma D.
Well developed breasts B.